For one I don’t see the connection in any possible way! Both cases took places decades ago, long before Trump got into office and started demanding concessions. And in both cases the eu did nothing wrong? In both cases a us citizen did something terrible (at an order or not), but the US had jurisdiction over them both? And yes incredible amounts of corruption must have taken place in the US but again how is that the eus fault in any possible way?

Eh, I don’t think that has much hold anymore… After all it was a business decision, not a moral stance! I think its more about being a large trading…

Wait, we did not concede anything? What are you on about? Being polite? Countries tend to be polite to other countries representatives!

The fuck would you even do with a taller screen?